Trinity became a basic dogma of Christianity when it was mandated by the council of Nicea in 325 CE. This is when the concept became doctrine of the church,although it was first thought up almost one hundred years before.For the first few hundred years after his death,Jesus had no designation as G-d or son of the trinity.
If G-d is all-powerful, why wouldn't He and only He, be the One that "saves" eternally like it says in the scriptures? Why would G-d need another entity to do His work,when He can do everything? He needs no other.
Isaiah 43:10-11,"..I am He:before me there was no G-d formed,neither shall there be after Me. I , even I, am the L-rd;and beside me there is no savior."
Isaiah 44:24,"....I am the L-rd that maketh all things;...alone...by Myself."
Isaiah 45:5-6," I am the L-rd,and there is none else, there is no G-d beside me:...there is none beside Me. I am the L-rd, and there is none else."
Isaiah 45:21-22,"....and there is no G-d else besides me;..Look unto Me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth:for I am G-d and there is none else."
Deut 4:35,"..the L-rd he is G-d;there is none else beside Him."
Deut 4:39,"He is G-d in heaven above and on the earth below:...there is none else."
Deut 32:39,"See now that I, even I, am He, and there is no god with me:.....neither is there any that can deliver out of My hand."
1 Chron 17:20, "O L-rd,there is none like thee, neither is there any god beside thee."
Nehem 9:6,"Thou, even thou art L-rd alone."
Psalm 86:10,"....thou art G-d alone."
Hosea 13:4,"....for there is no savior beside me."
John 10:38 says the Father is in me and I am in the Father. Read John 17:23,"I in them and thou in me,that they be made one.", John 14:20, "I am in my Father and ye (followers) in me and I in you", John 17:21,"That they all be as one;as thou,Father,are in me,and I in thee..", To take this literally in the Christian concept that they take, John 10;30 ,then G-d would be a fifteen in one G-d. Notice that also the Holy Spirit is totally ignored in these verses? In fact, to say Hashem is in me and I am in Hashem is a declaration of faith, not Deity
Or ha'Emeth:Who is the true believer in G-d?The man who believes that the Shekinah is within him always and guards him;That he is in the creator and the Creator is in him.
1 Cor 15:28,(Paul)"And when all things are subdued to him,then the son also himself be subject to He that put all things under him,that G-d will be all in all."Jesus is a servant and subject of G-d.How could he be part of a trinity which is equally powerful and eternal?
1 John 5:7,"...the Father,the son and the Holy Spirit." isn't in your bible.It was added text like many verses. This passage was added to the bible in the sixth century.It is first found in a paper called Liber Appologeticus in the fourth century. It is noted that the words "in heaven,the Father,the Word,and the Holy Ghost;and these three are one(KJ) in older translations (1John 5:7) are sixth century additions to the original text.The footnote in the Jerusalem Bible,a Catholic translation,says these words are "..not in any of the early Greek manuscripts or in the earliest manuscripts of the Vulgate itself."It is interesting that the Catholic church,who originally added this verse would admit now that it a spurious addition to the Testament.
Mark 15:34( Matt 27:46),"And at the 9th hour Jesus cried out,"My G-d,my G-d,why have you forsaken me?" Can G-d forsake himself? This verse is one that clearly shows that Jesus had a G-d and was not G-d. Jesus' G-d was the G-d of Israel,the one G-d.
Look at the absurd ideas created when Jesus is considered G-d:
1)G-d sends G-d away from Himself
2)G-d teaches Himself what he already knows
3)G-d's doctrines belong only to part of Himself
4)G-d gives Himself a command to do
Also note that reference to the holy spirit is neglected,even though it is supposedly part of this triune godhead,Since Jesus never called himself G-d or a part of G-d and referred to himself as a son of man, shouldn't people believe him? Trinity is not seen in any of the teachings of Jesus,but in the religious teachings about Jesus by Christianity.
The bible says God is ECHOD,One. That is a prime number, not an ordinal number.
Ok,pop multiple choice quiz.
1. If you walk in a bar in Tel Aviv and order echod beer, how many does the bartender bring you.
A. One
B. Three
C.Two
2. If God, Jesus and the holy spirit are one and they go to the movies.How many tickets do they need to buy?
A.One
B. Three
C.Two
Can a fallible human be God? Not unless God is imperfect. If the words written in the Greek text are true to form as to what was said by Jesus, as Christianity believes they are, then how is it that Jesus couldn't quote the Hebraic scriptures correctly concerning his own ancestry? Part of the "trinity" didn't know what scripture says that any mortal man that heard the story does? The Greek text even implies that the devil knows scripture (Mat 4:1-11), so wouldn't a member of the "trinity"?
Jesus quote:Mark 2
25. And he said unto them, Did ye never read what David did, when he had need, and was hungry, he, and they that were with him?
26. How he entered into the house of God when Abiathar was high priest, and ate the showbread, which it is not lawful to eat save for the priests, and gave also to them that were with him?
Tanakh quote 1 Sam 21
1. Then came David to Nob to Ahimelech the priest: and Ahimelech came to meet David trembling, and said unto him, Why art thou alone, and no man with thee?
2. And David said unto Ahimelech the priest, The king hath commanded me a business, and hath said unto me, Let no man know anything of the business whereabout I send thee, and what I have commanded thee: and I have appointed the young men to such and such a place.
Ahimelech was High Priest, not Abiathar. Abiathar was the son of Ahimelech. David was alone on a mission commanded by Saul and there were no others with him.
Jesus himself taught that he wasn't God when he said "The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28) The Greek texts state that Jesus has One who is his God, so how can he be God? (Revelation 3:12)
If the "son" and the "Father" are the same, why, when faced with tough questions, did Jesus say only his "father" knew those things such as the case in Mark: "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the son, but the
Father." (Mark 13:32) Let us not forget the Gospel of Thomas which the Church attempted to destroy! This Gospel emphasizes Jesus' own sayings, casting him as a wise man but not the 'Son of God'.
Three in one is gun oil, not the Creator of all.
Comments (12)
the infinite point that holds everything within it's self. one. "I am alone and there is no God where I am" AL 11:23 This would be Hadit... in Egypt he was the winged disk.
When I think of trinity... I think... Mercy, Severity, and Beauty... on the tree of life. Or, the upper triad. But I don't this you can refer to them as father, son and holy spirit using the tree of life. Maybe you can? idk.... But that's the first thing that comes to mind.
"The bible says God is ECHOD,One."
What's your take on Genesis 2:24
al ken ya'azav ish et aviv ve'et immov vedavak be'ishtov vehaiu levasar echad.
For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother and they (husband and wife) shall become
ONE FLESH.
Does echad really only mean "one" or can it also mean "united"?
What does G-d mean when he says G-d is echad?
@Lamb@revelife - Apparently the pshat (simple reading) of the verse eludes you. The verse simply staes that a man should have an attachment to his wife that he will move from his parents house and establish a new home with his wife.If you take one bunch of bananas, are all the bananas the same banana? Are you and your wife one person? Christianity turns the One True God of Israel into Horus, Osirus and Isis or any of the other pagan concepts of triune godheads.
The fact is I really don't care what the Christian faith says about its own doctrines since it has nothing to do with what it says in the Tanakh and contradicts it.This is especially found in the writings of Paul, who not only contradicts God and the Prophets, but also the protagonist of the Greek text.His "final sacrifice" concept shows he obviously never read the Prophets since Ezekiel 37-45 shows the practice in the Eternal Temple and Malachi talks of the same thing in the Messianic Age.Paul's claim that "only blood sacrifice atones for sin" shows he never read or heard much of what the Torah,writings and Prophets say about repentence,prayer and charity being forms of atonement.TRUE BIBLICAL TEACHINGS ABOUT ATONEMENT | Hezakiah4 on Xanga
Paul's warping of what Jeremiah says about a new covenant,including misquoting the Prophet truely shows his complete lack of knowlege of Hebraic scripture.While the Prophet states this new covenant will be God writing the Torah on our hearts as opposed to having to learn it, Paul turns it into a human blood sacrifice belief with the displacement of everything God says is forever.. New Covenant ? | Hezakiah4 on Xanga
Basically the Greek text says that God is so completely incompetent that His system of laws and atonemnt of sin through simple repentence,prayer and charity couldn't work so a man had to be murdered by pagans to fix it.
Most Fundamentalist and Evangelical Christians adhere to the theology of “supercessionism,” also called “displacement theology.” According to this theory, first developed by St. Justin Martyr and St. Irenaeus of Lyon (circa 130 to 200 CE), when Jesus completed his “ministry on earth,” Christianity’s “New Testament” superseded Judaism’s “old” one. Supercessionism meant that G-d had unilaterally abrogated the “Old Covenant” with the Jewish people and that Judaism was now denigrated to a state of permanent inferiority vis-a-vis the glorious “New Covenant,” Christianity.Judaism itself was seen as a religious dead end, the “victim” of Pharisaic-rabbinic obsession with legalistic minutiaeThis change in G-d’s outlook, so to speak, is graphically dramatized to Christian believers by the lurid description in Mark (15:38) of how the veil before the Holy of Holies in the Temple was “ripped in twain” by invisible hands at the precise moment when “Jesus gave up the ghost,” a story not confirmed in Josephus or anywhere else.
Nevertheless, by the 4th century, supercessionism in one form or another was the accepted doctrine of the Church.According to this ingenious theory, while the Jews retained all the Biblical prophets’ criticism and condemnation, the Biblical blessings were somehow transferred to the new coalescing Church.
I simply post comparative theology. I live in America and we have freedom of religion here. What anyone practices is their right to do so and I personally don't care if someone is Athiest, Jewish,Christian,Muslim, Rastafarian, or sacrifices squirrels to a Mr Potatohead.
@Hezakiah4 -
ahahaha! yes! "what are you doing today?" "well I'm sacrificing some squirrels to my Mr Potatohead shrine. Wanna join?" lol
@SugarH69 - LOL , don't be a heretic and use those grey squirrels, they have to be the red ones without blemish like the heifer in Numbers 19:2
From reading your reply I know that you are aware that Hebrew words have more than one meaning...I typed echad in at http://morfix.mako.co.il/Default.aspx
and it gave me the 3 following definitions:
1. someone, anyone ; one, a type
2. to join, to unite ; to combine, to merge ; to unify, to consolidate
3. to be united
I understand the contradictions brought on by christianity's interpretations of Paul's writing...My personal opinion is that the translators from Greek to English have had a hay day in putting forth their own beliefs through their translations, I'll leave it at that.
Anyway...I'm not here to cram my beliefs down your throat. I stopped by because you stopped by my site first and commented and so I thought I'd leave a comment, I meant no disrespect to your opinions.
@Lamb@revelife - No disrespect taken nor implied to you, my friend. Like I said, I just write about comparative theology and point at the words. Whether someone looks or not is up to them and it's their choices on what to think.
Hebrew words don't have different meanings since the way they are spoken is what they mean. The letters may appear the same, but it takes changing the vowels to give a word a different meaning. The three letter root word is the commonality, but can have totally different meanings in actuality.Translations are always pretty bad to one degree or another, that's why I use the Hebrew and later Aramaic texts. Remember that the source of the Hebraic scriptures in the Christian book is the Septuigent, a translation of Hebrew to Greek then to Latin,then to English. The Greek text is from Greek,to Latin to English and one's like the KJV are no more than a re-write of the Bishop's Bible, with a lot of added text not found in any of the earliest Vulgates. The list of forged additions is pretty long.
Good, it was not my intent to offend.
Hm, I'm not sure I follow you. Isn't the Torah written w/o vowels?
@Lamb@revelife - Of course a Torah scroll is writen without vowels, but any chumash or prayer book or Tanakh is.Here, this will help you out.Judaism 101: Hebrew Alphabet
thanks for the link...I'm taking a self paced class to learning Hebrew
@Lamb@revelife - Ancient Hebrew Research Center - Home Page PC: Hebrew Flashcards - primer FoundationStone - a free and easy way to learn Hebrew
Have a few more. If I can be of any other help, you know where to find me. Enjoy the day
Wow, thanks for the links!
Comments are closed.